NCERT Solutions Class 9 Social Science PDF

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NCERT Solutions Class 9 Social Science PDF

OTBA (Open Text Based Assessment) 2017

History ( India and the Contemporary World – I)

1. The French Revolution 

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2. Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution

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3. Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

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4. Forest Society and Colonialism

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5. Pastoralists in the Modern World

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6. Peasants and Farmers

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7. History and Sport: The Story of Cricket

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8. Clothing: A Social History

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Geography (Contemporary India – I)

1. India – Size and Location

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2. Physical Features of India

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3. Drainage

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4. Climate

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5. Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

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6. Population

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Political Science (Democratic Politics – I)

1. Democracy in Contemporary World 

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2. What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

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3. Constitutional Design

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4. Electoral Politics

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5. Working of Institutions

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6. Democratic Rights

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History ( India and the Contemporary World – I)

1. The French Revolution 

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Question 1:

Describe the circumstances leading to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France.

Answer 1:

Following are some of the causes which had a cumulative effect to result in revolution in France:

  • (a) The war with Britain for an independent America: This war led to mounting debt on the French monarchy. This necessitated imposition of new taxes on the public.
  • (b) Privilege based on birth: People got privileges and position based on their lineage and not on their merit. This led to resentment among common people.
  • (c) Concentration of power among the privileged: People belonging to the first and second estate had all the power and money. Masses were at the mercy of this privileged class.
  • (d) Subsistence Crisis: Rising population and less grain production resulted in demand supply gap of bread, which was the staple diet. Wages did not keep pace with rising prices. It was becoming difficult for people.
  • (e) Growing Middle Class: Because of increased overseas trade a new class emerged. This class was wealthy not because of birth but because of its ability to utilize opportunities. People of the middle class started raising their voice for an end to privileges based on lineage.

All of this led to a general sense of resentment among people. Certain thinkers of the period spread awareness through various media. Some from the privileged classes also advocated a switch to democracy. So, finally there was revolution in France.

 

Question 2:

Which groups of French society benefited from the revolution? Which groups were forced to relinquish power? Which sections of society would have been disappointed with the outcome of the revolution?

Answer 2:

Peasants and artisans of French society benefited from the revolution. Clergy, nobles and church had to relinquish power. It is obvious that those who had to forego power and privileges would have been disappointed. People from the first and the second estate must have been a disappointed lot.

 

Question 3:

Describe the legacy of the French Revolution for the peoples of the world during the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.

Answer 3:

The ideas of liberty and democratic rights were the most important legacy of the French Revolution. These spread from France to the rest of Europe during the nineteenth century, where feudal systems were abolished. Further these ideas spread to different colonies of the European nations. Colonised people interpreted and moulded these ideas according to respective needs. This was probably like seed for an end of colonization in many countries. By the mid of 20th century major part of the world adopted democracy as the preferred mode of rule and the French Revolution can be termed as the initiation point for this development.

 

Question 4:

Draw up a list of democratic rights we enjoy today whose origins could be traced to the French Revolution.

Answer 4:

The following fundamental rights, given in the Indian constitution can be traced to the French Revolution:

  • The right to equality
  • The right to freedom of speech and expression
  • The right to freedom from exploitation
  • The right to constitutional remedies

 

Question 5:

Would you agree with the view that the message of universal rights was beset with contradictions? Explain.

Answer 5:

The major contradiction in the message of universal rights as per the French Constitution of 1791 was the total ignorance of women. All rights were given to men. Apart from that the presence of huge number of people as passive citizens, without voting rights, was like not putting into practice what you preach. In other words it can be said that although the declaration of universal rights was a good starting point but it left much to be desired.

 

Question 6:

How would you explain the rise of Napoleon?

Answer 6:

After France became a republic in 1792, the then ruler, Robespeirre, gave more privileges to the wealthier section of society. Further, he was a sort of autocrat himself. This led to reign of terror for the following many years. After Robespeirre’s rule came to an end a directory was formed to avoid concentration of power in one individual. Members of the directory often fought among themselves leading to total chaos and political instability. This created a political vaccum in France. This was a conducive situation and Napoleon Bonaparte took the reign of power as a military dictator.

2. Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution

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Question 1:

What were the social, economic and political conditions in Russia before 1905?

Answer 1:

The social, economic and political conditions in Russia were very deplorable before 1905 which brought about a big revolution there known as ‘1905 Revolution’.

At the beginning of the 20th century about 85% of the Russia’s population was agriculturists. Russia was a major exporter of grains. Industry was found in pockets only. Most industries were run by the private industrialists. Because of wide spread corruption and exploitations, sometimes workers did not get even the minimum wages and also there was no limit of working hours. Russia was an autocracy and was ruled by the Tsar. The Tsar, especially Tsar Nicholas II was a self-willed, corrupt, oppressive ruler. He ignored public welfare as a result of which the conditions of the peasants and workers had also become very deplorable. The workers and peasants both were divided. Peasants frequently refused to pay rent and even murdered landlords. Being influenced by the democratic experiments by the Western European countries, the Russians also demanded a responsible government but all their demands were turned down. Consequently, even the moderate reformers began to talk of revolutions.

During the rule of Tsar Nicholas II the privileged had got special rights while the general public including the workers and farmers had no say in the government. The situation had become so explosive that even the liberals campaigned to end this state of affairs. The Russian Social Democratic Workers Party was founded in 1898 by socialists who respected Marx’s ideas. In 1903, this party was divided into two groups – Mensheviks and Bolsheviks. The Bolsheviks, who were in majority, were led by Lenin who is regarded as the greatest thinker on socialism after Marx.

 

Question 2:

In what ways the working population in Russia different from other countries in Europe before 1917?

Answer 2:

The condition of Russian people, especially those of the working population like the farmers and the factory workers was very deplorable as compared to other European countries. It was mainly due to the autocratic government of the Tsar Nicholas II who antagonized these people day-by-day by his corrupt and oppressive policies.

The peasants worked as serf on the land and much of their produce went into the hands of landowners and the privileged classes. The nobility, the crown and the Orthodox Church owned large properties. Although these peasants were generally deeply religious but they had no respect for the nobility. In European countries the peasants respected nobles and fought for them. But in Russia, peasants wanted the land of the nobles to be given to them. Due to the various oppressive policies and out of frustration, often they refused to pay rent and even murdered landlords.

The condition of the factory workers was equally miserable. They could not form any trade unions and political parties to express their grievance. Most industries were run by the private industrialists. They exploited the workers for their selfish ends. Many times these workers did not get even the minimum fixed wages. There was no limit of working ours as a result of which they had to work from 12 – 15 hours a day. Their conditions were so miserable that they had neither political rights nor any hope of gaining any reforms until the beginning of the Russian Revolution of 1917.

 

Question 3:

Why did the Tsarist autocracy collapse in 1917?

Answer 3:

The condition of Russian people, especially those of the working population like the farmers and the factory workers was highly miserable. It was mainly due to the autocratic government of the Tsar Nicholas II who antagonized these people day-by-day by his corrupt and oppressive policies. As a result of such policies, his autocracy collapsed in 1917.

The following points indicate the background of the miserable condition of the working population of Russia which was also the main reasons for the collapse of the Tsarist autocracy in 1917:

  • The peasants worked as serf on the land and much of their produce went into the hands of landowners and the privileged classes. Land hunger among farmers was a dominant factor. Due to the various oppressive policies and out of frustration, often they refused to pay rent and even murdered landlords.
  • The condition of the workers was also very deplorable. They could not form any trade unions and political parties to express their grievance. Most industries were run by the private industrialists. Many times these workers did not get even the minimum fixed wages. There was no limit of working ours as a result of which they had to work from 12 – 15 hours a day.
  • The autocratic rule of the Tsar had become quite inefficient. He was a self-willed, corrupt and oppressive ruler who never cared for the welfare of the people or the country.
  • The teachings of Karl Marx also encouraged the people to raise a standard revolt.
  • The revolution of 1905 also proved a dress rehearsal of the revolution of 1917.
  • Last but not the least, the Tsar’s participation and defeat in the First World War proved the last straw to break the camel’s back.

Question 4:

Make two lists: one with the main events and the effects of the February Revolution and the other with the main events and effects of the October Revolution. Write a paragraph on who was involved in each, who were the leaders and what was the impact of each on Soviet history.

Answer 4:

February Revolution

  • On 22 February: A lockout at a factory.
  • Demonstrators thronged the centre of the capital, and curfew was imposed.
  • 25th February: Suspension of Duma.
  • 27th February: Formation of Soviet.
  • 2nd March: Tsar leaves power and provisional government formed.

The February Revolution ended the autocratic Tsarist rule in Russia and paved the way for an elected government. There was no leader of this movement.

October Revolution

  • 16th October: Formation of Military Revolutionary Committee
  • 24th October: Pro-government troops called in to deal with the situation.
  • Military Revolutionary Committee controls the city by night and ministers surrender.
  • The Bolshevik take control of the power.

The October Revolution was led by Lenin. This event paved the way for complete control of the Bolsheviks over Russia and the beginning of a single-party rule.

 

Question 5:

What were the main changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October Revolution?

Answer 5:

The main changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October Revolution are listed below:

  • The Bolsheviks were not in favour of any private property. Hence most industries and banks were nationalized.
  • Land was declared social property and peasants were allowed to seize the land on which they worked.
  • In cities the large houses were partitioned according to family
  • Use of old titles of aristocracy was banned.
  • To assert the change Bolsheviks introduced new uniforms for the army and officials.
  • The Bolshevik party was renamed as the Russian Communist Party (Bolshevik).
  • Russia became a one-party state and Trade unions kept under party control.
  • For the first time they introduced a Centralized Planning on the basis of which Five Year Plans were made.

 

Question 6:

Write a few lines to show what you know about:

(i) Kulaks

(ii) The Duma

(iii) Women workers between 1900 and 1930.

(iv) The Liberals.

(v) Stalin’s collectivization programme.

Answer 6:

(i) Kulaks

They were well-to-do peasants. By 1927-28 the towns of Soviet Russia were facing an acute problem of grain supplies. Kulaks were thought to be partly responsible for this. Also to develop modern farms and run them along industrial lines the Party under the leadership of Stalin thought it was necessary to eliminate Kulaks.

(ii) The Duma

During 1905 Revolution, the Tsar allowed the creation of an elected consultative parliament in Russia. This elected consultative parliament in Russia was called Duma.

(iii) Women workers between 1900 and 1930

During Russian revolution of 1905, the February Revolution of 1917, the women workers also took part in shaping the future of Russia. Women workers made up to 31% of the factory labour force by 1914, but were paid less than men.

Women workers had not only to work in factories but also, had to look after their families and children. They were also very active in all affairs of the country. They often inspired their male co-workers. For instance, let us take the incidence of Marfa Vasileva, a female worker in the Loverz Telephone Factory who raised her voice against the rising prices and the high-handedness of the factory owners and also organized a successful strike. The example of Marfa Vasilva was followed by other women workers and they did not sit idle till they established a socialistic state in Russia.

(iv) The Liberals

The Liberals in Russia were those persons who wanted a nation which tolerated all religions. They wanted to safe-guard the rights of individuals against the governments. They opposed the uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers. They agreed a representative, elected parliamentary government subject to laws. They wanted an independent judiciary but the liberals did not believe in Universal Adult Franchise. They also did not want the voting right of women.

(v) Stalin’s collectivization programme

By 1927-28 the towns in Soviet Russia were facing an acute problem of grain supplies. Stalin, who was the leader of the party at that time, investigated the causes of this problem and introduced some emergency measures accordingly. Stalin’s collectivization programme in 1929 was one of these measures. Under this programme the party forced all farmers to cultivate in collective farms (Kolkhoz). The profit or the produce from a collective farm was shared by the farmers worked on it. However, those farmers who resisted collectivization were severely punished. They did not want to work in collective farms for a variety of reasons. Stalin’s government allowed some independent cultivation, but treated such cultivators unsympathetically.

In spite of Stalin’s collectivization programme, production did not increase immediately. In fact the bad harvests of 1930-33 led to one of the worst famines in the Soviet History.

3. Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

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Question 1:

Describe the problems faced by the Weimer Republic.

Answer 1: 

After the defeat of the imperial Germany at the end of the First World War, King Kaiser William II fled to Holland to save his life. Taking this opportunity, the Parliamentary Parties met at Weimer and established a Republic on November 1918 popularly known as Weimer Republic. This Republic was not received well by the Germans mainly because of the terms which the Republic was forced to accept by the Allied Forces after German’s defeat in the First World War. The Republic had to face many problems, some of which are given below:

  • The Republic was forced to sign a peace treaty at Versailles in June 1919. The terms and conditions of this peace treaty were too harsh and humiliating. According to this treaty Germany lost its overseas colonies, 13 percent of its territories, 75 percent of its iron and 26 percent of its coal reserves. Also the Allied Powers demilitarized Germany to weaken its powers. So, this Republic was defamed and became unpopular among its own people from the very beginning.
  • Germany had to agree to pay huge war compensation to 6 billion pounds to the Allied Countries. With all its resources, the Republic could never pay such a huge amount and so, many Germans held the new Weimer Republic responsible for agreeing to these conditions.
  • Because of its weak position, those who supported the republic like – Socialists, Catholics, Democrats became easy targets of attack in the Conservative Nationalist Circles.
  • Because of the opposition of the Allied Powers, Germans could not become a member of the League of Nations till 1925. Such a thing created most resentment in Germany and particularly for the Weimer Republic.
  • Germany had fought the war largely on loans and had to pay war reparations in gold. With the depleted gold reserves, scarce resources and crippled economic conditions the Republic was no more able to pay war compensations. Under this situation the new Republic had to face a tough opposition from the neighbouring countries as they occupied its leading industrial area, Ruhr to claim the coal reserves.
  • All in all there was devastation, starvation, unemployment, total despair among the youth and humiliation everywhere. The country was passing through a situation of hyperinflation and the Republic failed to solve the economic problems of the people. Last but not the least; the German economy was the worst hit by the world-wide economic crisis of 1929 – 1933.

So, the Weimer Republic had to face too many difficulties since its inception. Indeed the Republic was too young and vulnerable to survive so many problems within and outside the country and ultimately, it failed when Hitler sealed its fate in 1933.

 

Question 2:

Discuss why Nazism became popular in Germany in 1930.

Answer 2:

The story of the Rise of Nazism in Germany is not limited to a few specific events or causes. It is the result of the working of an elaborate and frightening system which operated at different levels. Nevertheless, some of the main causes of the Rise and Popularity of Nazism in Germany can be mentioned as follows:

  • Treaty of Versailles: Germany was forced to sign a peace treaty at Versailles after her defeat in the First World War. This treaty was so harsh and humiliating for the Germans which they could not accept by heart and ultimately led to the rise of Hitler’s Nazism in Germany. Because of the various terms of this treaty Germany had to sacrifice much of its territories, colonies, natural resources, military power and also had to pay huge war compensation. This created a feeling of sheer dissatisfaction among the people of Germany who visualized Hitler of the Nazi Party as the symbol of revival of the lost glories of Germany.
  • Economic Crises: The Nazis did not have much popularity until the early 1930s. The German economy was the worst hit by the by the world-wide economic crisis of 1929 – 1933. The country was passing through a situation of hyperinflation. It was during this period of Great Depression when Nazism became a mass movement.
  • Political Turmoil: There were many political parties in Germany such as Nationalists, Royalists, Communists, Social Democrats etc. although none of them was enjoying majority in the democratic government. The Party strife was at its peak. This along with various other crises within the country continuously weakened the Republic government and ultimately giving an opportunity to the Nazis to capture the power.
  • Germany had no faith in Democracy: After the defeat of Germany at the end of the First World War, ‘Democracy’ was totally new for the Germans. They had no faith in Parliamentary institutions. Democracy was indeed a young and fragile idea, which could not survive the various problems which were prevailing in Germany at that time. People preferred prestige and glory to liberty and freedom. They supported Hitler whole-heartedly as he got the ability to fulfill their dreams.
  • Failure of Weimar Republic: After the defeat in the First World War and Versailles Treaty there was devastation, starvation, unemployment, total despair among the youth and complete confusion everywhere in Germany. Weimar Republic failed to solve the economic crises of the country. This provided a golden opportunity for the Nazis to launch a campaign in its favour.
  • Hitler’s Personality: Hitler was a powerful speaker, an able organizer, resourceful person and a man of actions.  He could mobilize the mass in his favour by his passionate words. He promised to build a strong nation, undo the injustice of the Versailles Treaty and restore the dignity of the German people. In fact, his personality and actions contributed maximum to the popularity of Nazism in Germany.

 

Question 3:

What are the peculiarities of Nazi thinking?

Answer 3:

After the defeat in the First World War Germany had to sign a harsh and humiliating treaty with the Allies. The treaty multiplied the problems an already defeated Germany many times and also a political uncertainty in the country. As a result, Hitler rose to the power. He set up the Nazi party and succeeded in capturing the power and establishing the dictatorship of the Nazi party in Germany. The dictatorial rule of the Nazi party under the leadership of Hitler is termed as Nazism. Nazi ideology was synonymous with Hitler’s worldview. The chief features of Nazi thinking were as under:

  • The state is above all. All powers should be vested in the State. People exist for the State, not the State for the people.
  • It was in favour of ending all types of parliamentary institutions and glorified the rule of a great leader.
  • It was in favour of crushing all types of party formations and opposition.
  • It was in favour of rooting out liberalism, socialism and communism.
  • It preached hatred for the Jews whom they thought, were responsible for the economic misery of the Germans.
  • The Nazi party considered Germany superior to all other nations and wanted to have her influence all over the world.
  • It wanted to mobilize the private and State efforts for her development of agriculture and industries etc.
  • It wanted to denounce the disgracing Treaty of Versailles.
  • It extolled war and glorified the use of force.
  • It aimed at increasing the German Empire and acquiring all the colonies snatched away from her.
  • It dreamt of creating a Racial State of ‘Pure Germans’ or ‘Nordic Aryans’ by eliminating all others who were undesirable to them.

 

Question 4:

Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating a hatred for the Jews.

Answer 4:

Soon after assuming power in Germany in 1933 Hitler launched a vicious propaganda against the Jews which proved quite successful in creating hatred for the Jews. Some of the reasons for the success of the propaganda against the Jews were the following:

  1. Hitler had already created a niche for himself in the minds of German people who began to consider him as their Messiah. They used to believe Hitler just by his words. Thus, the personality cult created by Hitler did all the wonder and the Nazi propaganda against the Jews proved successful.
  2. The traditional Christian hatred for the Jews, because they were accused to have killed Christ, was fully exploited by the Nazis in order to make the Germans pre-judicial against Jews.
  3. The Nazis used the language and media effectively with great care. The racial theory put forward by the Nazis that the Jews belonged to a lower race and as such were undesirable.
  4. The Nazis injected hatred against the Jews even in the minds of the children from the very beginning during the days of their schooling. The teachers who were Jews were dismissed and Jews children were thrown out of the schools. Such methods and new ideological training to the new generation of children went a long way in making the Nazi’s propaganda quite effective in creating hatred for the Jews.
  5. Propaganda films were made to create hatred for the Jews. Orthodox Jews were stereotyped and marked. For example, one such film was‘The Eternal Jew’.

 

Question 5:

Explain what role women had in Nazi society. Return to Chapter 1 on the French Revolution. Write a paragraph comparing and contrasting the role of women in the two periods.

Answer 5:

In Nazi Germany women were considered to be different from men. The Nazis did not believe in equal rights for men and women. They felt that equal rights would destroy the society. Young women were told to become good mothers, look after the home and rear pure — blooded Aryan children. Women who deviated from the prescribed code of conduct were severely punished. In direct contrast to the women in Nazi Germany, women in France asserted themselves during the French revolution. Numerous women’s clubs were formed. Women demanded equal rights as men. The government introduced laws to improve the lives of women. Education was made compulsory for girls. Unlike Nazi women who were confined to their homes, the French women were given freedom to work and run businesses. The French women also won the right to vote which was denied to their Nazi counterparts.

 

Question 6:

In what ways did the Nazi state seek to establish total control over its people?

Answer 6:

Adolph Hitler became the Chancellor of Germany in 1933. He passed many laws to gain total control over his people. The Fire Decree was passed on 28th February, 1933.

  • The Decree abolished freedom of speech, press and assembly
  • Concentration Camps were set up and the Communist were sent there. The Enabling Act was passed on 3rd March, 1933
  • All other political parties were banned.
  • Nazi Party took complete control the economy, media, army and judiciary.
  • Hitler became a Dictator

Special Surveillance and Security forces were formed to control the people. The Police, the Storm Troopers, the Gestapo, the SS, and the Security Service were given extraordinary powers to control and order the society in ways the Nazis wanted. The police forces acquired powers to rule with impunity and soon the Nazi State established total control over its people.

4. Forest Society and Colonialism

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Question 1:

Discuss how the changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the following groups of people:

  • Shifting cultivators
  • Nomadic and pastoralist communities
  • Firms trading in timber/forest produce
  • Plantation owners
  • Kings/British officials engaged in shikar

Answer 1:

  • Shifting cultivators

New forest laws banned shifting cultivation. For shifting cultivators, it was devastating because there was a problem for their survival. Many of them were forced to migrate to take up some other occupations. Many others were forced to work in the tea plantations.

  • Nomadic and pastoralist communities

Grazing of animals was banned under the new forest laws. It made the life of pastoralist communities difficult. Herds of animals were their only source of livelihood. The nomadic communities were declared as criminal communities. This made their life miserable because they could no longer move freely.

  • Firms trading in timber/forest produce

Because of huge demand of timber, it was boon for the timber merchants. They must have seen good growth in their incomes.

  • Plantation owners

Land was given at cheaper rates to the plantation owners. Labour was also made available to them at very low wages. Moreover, new policies were made which prevented the workers from going back to their home villages. It was a win-win situation for the plantation owner.

  • Kings/British officials engaged in shikar

Killing of ferocious animals; like tiger or wolves was monetarily rewarded. Moreover, hunting was viewed as a sign of bravely and valour. The Kings and British officials must have enjoyed the new found honour in the society.

 

Question 2:

What are the similarities between colonial management of the forests in Bastar and in Java?

Answer 2:

There were certain similarities in the colonial management of forests in Bastar and Java. In both the cases, the traditional rights of forest dwellers were taken away and they were forced to work for their colonial masters. Large scale deforestation took place and felled trees were replaced with monocultural plantations.

 

Question 3:

Between 1880 and 1920, forest cover in the Indian subcontinent declined by 9.7 million hectares, from 108.6 million hectares to 98.9 million hectares. Discuss the role of the following factors in this decline:

  • Railways
  • Shipbuilding
  • Agricultural expansion
  • Commercial farming
  • Tea/Coffee plantations
  • Adivasis and other peasant users

Answer 3:

  • Railways

There was huge demand of sleepers from the railways. In those days sleepers were made from wood. Expansion of the railway network resulted in large scale deforestation.

  • Shipbuilding

Shipbuilding was an important industry because ships were integral part of the military power of the British. When the number of oak trees sharply reduced in Britain, Indian forests provided good source of supply. Thus, shipbuilding also contributed towards large scale deforestation in India.

  • Agricultural expansion

The growing European population meant an increased demand for food grains. This resulted in expansion of cultivated land in India. More land was cleared of forests to make way for cultivation.

  • Commercial farming

There was increased demand for various raw materials; like cotton, indigo for the expanding industries in Britain. This resulted in large scale commercial farming in India. This could also become possible by clearing forests

  • Tea/Coffee plantations

Demand for tea and coffee also increased in Britain. The climate of northeastern India and the eastern coast was perfect for plantations. Large areas of forests were cleared for making way for plantations. The British plantation owners were given land on very cheap rates.

  • Adivasis and other peasant users

Adivasis had always been the protectors of forests and hence they had no role in deforestation. However, some peasants may have utilised the opportunity to expand the cultivated land; as had happened in Java. Moreover, the significant increase in cultivated land also indicates towards clearing of forests for farming.

 

Question 4:

Why are forests affected by wars?

Answer 4:

The two World Wars had major impacts on forests. More trees were cut to meet the wartime needs of Britain. In Java, the Dutch followed ‘scorched earth’ policy just before the Japanese occupation of the region. They destroyed sawmills and burnt huge piles of giant teak logs. The Japanese continued the exploitation of forests. They forced forest villagers to cut down forests. For many villagers, it was an opportunity to expand cultivated area.

5. Pastoralists in the Modern World

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Question 1:

Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another. What are the advantages to the environment of this continuous movement?

Answer 1:

The nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another in search of new pastures. When the grass in a particular part is exhausted and the season becomes unconducive, the nomadic tribes move to some other area. The seasonal movement of nomadic tribes is beneficial for the environment. It allows natural re-growth of grass in the pastureland.

 

Question 2:

Discuss why the colonial government in India brought in the following laws. In each case, explain how the law changed the lives of pastoralists:

  • Waste Land rules
  • Forest Acts
  • Criminal Tribes Act
  • Grazing Tax

Answer 2:

  • Waste Land rules

This law was brought to take control of the land which was not under cultivation. The surplus land could be used to increase the area under cultivation and also to increase land revenue. This Rule shrunk the pastureland which was earlier available.

  • Forest Acts

These Acts were introduced to gain control of those forests which had commercially important trees. Moreover, these acts were also utilised to collect some revenue from the pastoralists. The movement of pastoralists was severely restricted because of new Forest Acts. Instead of planning their movement according to the season, the pastoralists now had to move according to the new rules.

  • Criminal Tribes Act

This Act was introduced to force the nomadic tribes to a settled life. It was difficult to collect taxes from the nomadic people because they did not have permanent address. This Act tarnished the image of nomadic tribes. This disturbed their relationship with peasants and other mainstream communities. It also badly affected their earnings.

  • Grazing Tax

Grazing Tax was introduced in order to widen the tax net. This tax put a new burden on the pastoralists.

 

 Question 3:

Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands.

Answer 3:

The Maasailand was divided into British and German territories in 1885. The new international boundary restricted the movement of the Maasai community. Moreover, declaration of a vast tract of pastureland into game reserves also reduced the pastureland for Maasai.

 

Question 4:

There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Write about any two examples of changes which were similar for Indian pastoralists and the Maasai herders.

Answer 4:

Their traditional pasturelands were taken from them in the name of declaring certain areas as reserve forests. Second, they were forced out of many pastures in the name of expansion of cultivation.

6. Peasants and Farmers

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Question 1:

Explain briefly what the open field system meant to rural people in eighteenth- century England.

Look at the system from the point of view of:

  • A rich farmer
  • A labourer
  • A peasant woman

Answer 1:

  • A rich farmer

The open field system was not beneficial for the rich farmer because he could not have exclusive control of the commons. He could not expand his area under cultivation beyond the strips which were allocated at the beginning of a year.

  • A labourer

This system was beneficial for a labourer because it provided additional sources of livelihood. The labourer could hunt rabbits and catch fish for getting some nutritious food. The commons provided some source of livelihood during off seasons when farm work was not available.

  • A peasant woman

For a peasant woman, the commons provided ample space for collecting firewood, fruits and berries.

 

Question 2:

Explain briefly the factors which led to the enclosures in England.

Answer 2:

The increased price of wool tempted the rich farmers to usurp the commons. They wanted to improve their sheep breeds to earn more profits. They began making enclosures on the commons land. After the late eighteenth century, the population of England increased significantly. This was also the time of industrialization. Many people migrated to towns in search of new opportunities. All of this increased the demand for food-grains. These developments hastened the enclosure movement in England.

 

Question 3:

Why were threshing machines opposed by the poor in England?

Answer 3:

Threshing machines reduced the need for manual labour. After the end of Napoleonic Wars, many soldiers who came back to villages could not find jobs because of threshing machines. For them, the threshing machine was a symbol of joblessness and hence they opposed the threshing machines.

 

Question 4:

Who was Captain Swing? What did the name symbolise or represent?

Answer 4:

Captain Swing was a mythical person. During the riots to destroy threshing machines and farmhouses, the letters left by the rioters carried the signature of Captain Swing. The name symbolized the protest of poor against the rich farmers and against the new technology.

 

Question 5:

What was the impact of the westward expansion of settlers in the USA?

Answer 5:

After the late eighteenth century, white Americans began to move westward. The displaced local tribes and changed the entire landscape into agricultural belts. Finally, they established control up to the west coast. By the early twentieth century, the landscape of the USA had transformed radically. The USA began to dominate the world market in agricultural produce.

 

Question 6:

What were the advantages and disadvantages of the use of mechanical harvesting machines in the USA?

Answer 6:

Combined harvester saved time and manual labour for the farmers. It helped in managing huge farms with minimum number of workers. It improved productivity and profitability of big farmers. Many poor farmers fell in debt trap because they could not utilize the combined harvester to its full potential. Many of them deserted their farmland and turned into labourers.

 

Question 7:

What lessons can we draw from the conversion of the countryside in the USA from a bread basket to a dust bowl?

Answer 7:

The conversion of USA countryside from a bread basket to a dust bowl teaches the importance of conservation of the ecosystem. Human development cannot take place at the cost of natural environment.

 

Question 8:

Write a paragraph on why the British insisted on farmers growing opium in India.

Answer 8:

The British were heavily dependent on China for tea imports. Since the Chinese authority did not allow foreign goods, so the British had to pay for tea in silver and bullions. This had the potential danger of siphoning off the treasure of Britain. Opium could be easily smuggled into China because of a large number of opium addicts. Profit from opium trade could be utilised to finance the tea imports. Hence, the British insisted on farmers to grow opium in India.

 

Question 9:

Why were Indian farmers reluctant to grow opium?

Answer 9:

Opium production required the use of the best lands which meant diversion of land from cereal and pulses production. Opium cultivation was time consuming which left little time to care for other crops. Most of the farmers did not own land and they had to lease a land for growing opium. The British offered very low price of opium to the peasants. These are the various reasons for Indian farmers’ reluctance to grow opium.

7. History and Sport: The Story of Cricket

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Question 1:

Test cricket is a unique game in many ways. Discuss some of the ways in which it is different from other team games. How are the peculiarities of Test cricket shaped by its historical beginnings as a village game?

Answer 1:

Compared to other modern sports, a typical game of cricket takes a longer time to finish. A Test Match is played for five days and it still ends in a draw. A one-day match takes a whole day to finish. Even the shortest version; the Twenty-Twenty; takes about four hours to finish. Most of the modern sports take around ninety minutes to finish. The lengthy nature of cricket is because of its origin in the pre-industrialization days when the economy was purely agrarian. During off seasons for farming; people had plenty of time to watch a cricket match for several days. Cricket grounds can be of different shapes and sizes in different parts of the world. Cricket was the earliest modern team sport to be codified. The rules and regulations of cricket evolved on their own over a period of time. During its early years, cricket was played on the commons. The size of the commons land was variable and no boundary was present. The length of the boundary line was decided by the umpires after taking the consensus of the captains of the two teams.

 

 Question 2:

Describe one way in which in the nineteenth century, technology brought about a change in equipment and give one example where no change in equipment took place.

Answer 2:

Vulcanised rubber was used for making pads and gloves. The cricket bat has remained more or less same over the years. These two examples show the effect and non-effect of technological changes on cricket.

 

 Question 3:

Explain why cricket became popular in India and the West Indies. Can you give reasons why it did not become popular in countries in South America?

Answer 3:

Playing cricket was a manifestation by the elites of aping their colonial masters. Hence, cricket became popular in British colonies; like India and the West Indies. South America was never under the British rule and hence cricket could not become popular in South American countries.

 

Question 4:

Give brief explanations for the following:

  • The Parsis were the first Indian community to set up a cricket club in India.
  • Mahatma Gandhi condemned the Pentangular tournament.
  • The name of the ICC was changed from the Imperial Cricket Conference to the International Cricket Conference.
  • The shift of the ICC headquarters from London to Dubai

Answer 4:

The Parsis were the first Indian community to set up a cricket club in India.

The Parsis were rich businessmen and were the first to ape the western lifestyle. Hence, they were the first Indian community to set up a cricket club in India.

Mahatma Gandhi condemned the Pentangular tournament.

The Pentagular tournament was a contest among teams which were formed on communal lines. Hence, Mahatma Gandhi condemned this tournament.

The name of the ICC was changed from the Imperial Cricket Conference to the International Cricket Conference.

The term ‘Imperial’ in the earlier version carried the connotations of the colonial period and hegemony. When other cricket playing nations grew in prominence, the name was changed to International Cricket Conference in 1965.

The shift of the ICC headquarters from London to Dubai.

The ICC headquarters were shifted from London to Dubai mainly to shift the office to a tax-free destination. Many cricket playing nations did not have double taxation treaty with England. So, shifting the HQs was a purely commercial decision. Some analysts also see it as a symbolic shift of power from Europe to Asia.

 

Question 5:

How have advances in technology, especially television technology, affected the development of contemporary cricket?

Answer 5:

Cricket became a marketable game which could generate huge revenues. Cricket boards became richer by selling television rights to television companies. The TV channels made money by selling advertising slots. For companies, cricket provided opportunity to advertise their products and services to a large and captive audience. Cricketers became celebrities because of continuous television coverage. Apart from getting better pay from their cricket boards, the cricketers also began to earn huge sums of money by appearing in commercials. Television coverage resulted in expansion of audience base for the game. People from small towns and villages could see and experience the joy of cricket. Many children from the small towns could dream of becoming cricketers, by emulating their idols.

8. Clothing: A Social History

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Question 1:

Explain the reasons for the changes in clothing patterns and materials in the eighteenth century.

Answer 1:

After the 18th century, the colonisation of most of the world by Europe, the spread of  democratic ideals and the growth of an industrial society completely changed the ways in which people thought about dress. People could use styles and materials that were drawn from other cultures and locations. Western dress styles for men were adopted worldwide.

Question 2:

What were the sumptuary laws in France?

Answer 2:

From 1294 to the time of the French Revolution in 1789, the people of France were expected to strictly follow the sumptuary laws. The laws tried to control the behaviour of those considered socially inferior, preventing them from wearing certain clothes, consuming certain foods and beverages, and hunting game in certain areas.

Question 3:

Give an example of any two examples of the ways in which European dress codes were
different from Indian dress codes.

Answer 3:

European dress codes were different from Indian dress codes. Let us take the example of the turban and the hat. The two headgears not only looked different but also signified different things. The turban in India was not just for protection from the heat but was a sign of respectability and could not be removed at will. In the western tradition, the hat had to be removed before social superiors as a sign of respect. The shoe is another example. The Indians took off their shoes when they entered a sacred place. The British did not do so.

Question 4:

In 1805, a British official, Benjamin Heyne, listed the manufactures of Bangalore which included the following:

  • Women’s cloth of different musters and names
  • Coarse chintz
  • Muslins
  • Silk cloths

Of this list, which kind of cloth would have definitely fallen out of use in the early 1900s and why?

Answer 4:

Muslin would have fallen out of use as machine cloth had flooded the Indian markets and was cheaper. Muslin was expensive and hence was not used. In fact, the Industrial Revolution brought about a complete change in which muslin cloth had no place.

Question 5:

Suggest reasons why women in nineteenth century India were obliged to continue wearing traditional Indian dress even when men switched over to the more convenient western clothing. What does this show about the position of women in society?

Answer 5:

Women in the 19th century India were obliged to continue wearing traditional Indian dress even when men switched over to more convenient western clothes. This clearly shows that women during that time were accorded a lower status than men in society. They were not allowed to be aware of what was going on outside the house and were confined within the four walls of their homes. Modernity and change were not for them.

Question 6:

Winston Churchill described Mahatma Gandhi as a ‘seditious Middle Temple Lawyer’ now ‘posing as a half-naked fakir’. What provoked such a comment and what does it tell you about the symbolic strength of Mahatma Gandhi’s dress?

Answer 6:

Mahatma Gandhi went to the Viceroy’s house clad in a dhoti. This signified the symbolic strength of his dress. It showed the pride he had for his nation and its people, especially the peasants. It also signified how he identified with his people and the strength he derived from them.

Question 7:

Why did Mahatma Gandhi’s dream of clothing the nation in khadi appeal only to some sections of Indians?

Answer 7:

Mahatma Gandhi’s dream was to clothe the whole nation in khadi. But it was not easy for everyone to follow in his footsteps. Not many could take to a single peasant loincloth as he had. Some could not afford khadi which was expensive and some preferred to be dressed in finer cloth of various colours and designs.


Geography (Contemporary India – I)

1. India – Size and Location

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Question 1:

Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.
(i) The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
(a) Rajasthan                                        (b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh                                   (d) Tripura

Answer: (b) Orissa

(ii) The easternmost longitude of India is
(a)  9725′E                                          (b)  687′E
(c)  776′E                                            (d) 8232′E

Answer: (a) 9725′E

(iii) Uttaranchal, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with
(a) China                                             (b) Bhutan
(c) Nepal                                             (d) Myanmar

Answer: (c) Nepal

(iv) If you intend to visit Kavarati during your summer vacations, which one of the following Union Territories of India you will be going to
(a) Pondicherry                                    (b) Lakshadweep
(c) Andaman and Nicobar                   (d) Diu and Daman

Answer: (b) Lakshadweep

(v) My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India. Identify the country.
(a) Bhutan                                             (b) Tajikistan
(c) Bangladesh                                      (d) Nepal

Answer: (b) Tajikistan

 

Question 2:

Answer the following questions briefly.

(i)   Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.

(ii)  Name the countries which are larger than India.

(iii) Which island group of India lies to its south-east?

(iv) Which island countries are our southern neighbours?

Answer 2:

(i)   Lakshadweep

(ii)  Russia, Canada, China, USA, Brazil and Australia.

(iii) Andaman and Nicobar group of islands.

(iv) Maldives, Sri Lanka.

 

Question 3:

The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the west but the watches show the same time. How does this happen?

Answer 3:

From the longitudinal extent of India it is observed that the longitudinal expanse is about 30from west to east. This means that there would be a time-lag of two hours approximately from Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh. To avoid such differences in local time, Indian standard time has been fixed to give the whole country a uniform time. The local time of the Standard Meridian of 82O30’E is observed as the Standard Time by the whole country. Because of this reason we find that the sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the west but the watches show the same time.

 

Question 4:

The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance. Why?

Answer 4:

The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance because:

  1. It has given India a strategic advantage due to the Trans Indian ocean routes which connect the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia.
  2. This helps India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the Western coast and with the Southeast and East Asia from the Eastern coast.
  3. The vast coastline and the natural harbours have benefitted India in carrying out trade and commerce with its neighbouring and distant countries since ancient times.
  4. It has given India a distinct climate than the rest of the Asian Continent.

No other country has such a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India. It is India’s eminent position in the Indian Ocean which has given the name of an Ocean after it.

2. Physical Features of India

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Question 1:

Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.
(i) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as
(a) Coast                                               (b) Peninsula
(c) Island                                              (d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Peninsula

(ii) Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively called as

(a) Himachal                                          (b) Purvachal
(c) Uttarakhand                                     (d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Purvachal

(iii) The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as
(a) Coromandel                                    (b) Kannad
(c) Konkan                                           (d) Northern Circar
Answer: (b) Kannad

(iv) The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is
(a) Anai Mudi                                       (b) Mahendragiri
(c) Kanchenjungaa                                (d) Khasi
Answer: (a) Anai Mudi

 

Question 2:

Answer the following questions briefly:

(i)   What are tectonic plates?

(ii)  Which continents of today were parts of the Gondwana land?

(iii) What is bhabar?

(iv) Name the three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south.

(v)  Which plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhyan ranges?

(vi) Name the island group of India having coral origin.

Answer 2:

(i) Due to internal heat of the earth, the currents of the semi-molten rocks begin to move towards the crust and tear it apart dividing it into large fragments called lithospheric or tectonic plates. There are seven such major plates namely, South America, North America, Pacific, Indo–Australian, Eurasian, African and Antarctic.

(ii) Gondwana land is the name given to the hypothetical ‘super-continent’ located in Southern hemisphere. Gondwana Land included South America, part of Africa (south Africa including Madagascar), part of Asia (India, Arabia, Malaya), Australia and Antarctica, prior to its break-up under the forces causing continental-drift.

(iii) The ‘Bhabar’ is that narrow belt of the plain which is covered with pebbles and lies along the foothills of the Shiwaliks from the Indus to the Teesta. This belt is laid down by numerous streams descending down the hills.

(iv) The three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south are:

  • The northernmost range which is known as the great Himalayas or Inner Himalayas or the Himadri.
  • The range lying to the south of the Himadri which is known as Himachal or the lesser Himalaya.
  • The outermost range of the Himalayas which is known as the Shiwaliks. These are the foothill ranges and represent the southernmost division of the Himalayas.

(v) Malwa plateau or Central Highland

(vi) Lakshdweep.

 

Question 3:

Distinguish between

(i)   Converging and diverging tectonic plates.

(ii)  Bhangar and Khadar

(iii) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.

Answer 3:

(i) The internal heat of the earth makes the molten rocks to rush towards the surface of the earth and drive the crust into large fragments known as “Tectonic Plates”. These plates are drifting oven the mantle of the earth. As a result when the two or more plates are pushed towards each other they are called ‘Converging Plates’. On the other hand if they are moving away from each other, they are called ‘Diverging Plates’.

(ii) According to the age of the soils of the Northern Plain they have been differentiated by two names: (a) Bhangar and (b) Khadar. The difference between these two are mentioned below:

  • Bhangar- These are the older alluvium or old soil and form the largest part of the Northern Plains. They lie above the flood plains of the rivers and present a terrace like structure. It often contains Kankar nodules made of calcareous deposits.
  • Khadar – The newer and younger deposits of the flood plains are known as ‘Khadar’. So, these are the new alluvium or new soil and are very fertile. Thus, Khadar is ideal for intensive agriculture.

(iii)

Western GhatsEastern Ghats

1. The Western Ghats are situated and mark the western edges of Deccan Plateau parallel to the western coasts of India along the Arabian Sea.

2. Continuous, can be crossed through the passes only.

3. The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats. Average elevation is 900 – 1600 meters.

4. The height increases progressively from north to south. The highest peaks include the Anai Mudi, the Doda Belta.

5. The Western Ghats enclose a narrow strip between its western slopes and the Arabian Sea which is known as Western Coastal Plain. Its maximum width is 64 km.

6. It experiences orographic rain mostly in summer due to the summer monsoons. The climate is hot and moist.

7. Here the soil is highly fertile. Rice, spices, rubber and fruits like coconuts, cashew nuts etc. are grown here.

1. The Eastern Ghats are situated and mark the eastern edges of Deccan Plateau parallel to the eastern coasts of India along the Bay of Bengal.

2. Discontinuous, irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal.

3. Average elevation is 600 meters.

4. The highest peaks include the Mahendragiri, the Javadi Hills.

5. The Eastern Ghats also enclose a strip of land between its eastern slopes and the Bay of Bengal which is known as the Eastern Coastal Plain. It is wider than the Western Coastal strip with its maximum breadth 120 km.

6. It receives rain both in summer and winter, especially in winter through winter monsoons. However, here the rain is lesser than the western strip.

7. The soil is not as fertile as western strip. Rice, ground nuts, cotton, tobacco, coconuts etc. are grown here.

 

 Question 4:

Describe how the Himalayas were formed.

Answer 4:

The Indian Peninsula drifted towards the north and finally collided with the much larger Eurasian Plate. As a result of this collision, the sedimentary rocks which were accumulated in the geosynclines (known as Tethys) got folded and formed the mountain systems of the West Asia and Himalaya.

 

Question 5:

Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of the Himalayan region with that of the Peninsular plateau.

Answer 5:

The major physiographic divisions of India are the following:

  • The Himalayan Mountain Wall of the north.
  • The Northern Plains.
  • The Peninsular Plateau
  • The Indian Dessert.
  • The Coastal Plains.
  • The Islands.

The following table compares and contrasts between the relief of the Himalayan region with that of the Peninsular plateau.

 

Himalayan RegionPeninsular Plateau

1. The Himalayas are young fold mountains of comparatively recent origin.

2. They are the highest mountains in the world.

3. Many great rivers like – the Indus, the Ganges and the Brahmaputra originate from the Himalayas.

4. The Himalayas are formed of the sedimentary rocks.

5. They are formed at the edge of the Indo-Gangetic Plain.

6. Important hill stations like – Shimla, Mussoorie, Darjeeling, Nainital are found on the Himalayas.

1. They are a part of the oldest structures of the Indian subcontinent.

2. The Central Highlands are formed of low hills and there is no high peak of world-wide fame in these hills.

3. Very few rivers like – the Narmada and the Tapti originate from these hills.

4. The Central Highlands are formed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.

5. They are formed at the edge of the Deccan Plateau.

6. No well known hill station is found here.

 

Question 6:

Give an account of the Northern Plains of India.

Answer 6:

The Great Northern Plain extends from the Punjab Plain in the west to the Brahmaputra valley in the east. The Northern Plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems namely – the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra along with their tributaries. The deposition of alluvium in a vast basin lying at the foothills to the south of the Himalayas over millions of years formed this fertile plain. It spreads over an area of 7 lakh square km. The plain is about 2400 km long and 240 – 320 km broad. The rich soil cover combined with the abundant water supply and favourable climate made this agriculturally a very productive part of India. Because of this factor the density of population is also the highest in this region among all the physiographic divisions of India. The Northern Plain is broadly divided into three sections:

  1. The Punjab Plain – It is the western part of the Northern Plain formed by the Indus and its tributaries. This section is dominated by the Doabs.
  2. The Ganga Plain – It is the largest part of the Northern Plain and extends between Ghaggar and Teesta rivers.
  3. The Brahmaputra Plain – It forms the eastern part of the Northern Plain by the river Brahmaputra and its tributaries. It is narrower than the Ganga Plain and is a flood prone area.

In the south-east side of the Northern Plain lays the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta which is the largest delta of the world.

 

Question 7:

Write short notes on the following.

(i)  The Indian Desert

(ii) The Central Highlands

Answer 7:

(i) The Indian Desert – It is an important physiographic division of India. Some of its features are as follows:

  1. It covers almost the whole of Rajasthan state.
  2. It lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills.
  3. Its vast expanse is covered with sand dunes which their shape day in and day out.
  4. This region receives very little rainfall which is below 150 mm so; there are very few streams in this area.
  5. It has arid climate with very little vegetation.
  6. During the rainy season small streams are sometimes seen for a short-while which disappears again in sand after the rains are over.
  7. Luni is the only large river in this area.
  8. Crescent shape dunes which are called Barchans are a prominent feature of the Indian desert.
  9. Camel is the most important animal of this desert.

(ii) The Central Highlands – The northern division of the Peninsular Plateau lying to the north of the Narmada River covering a major area of the Malwa Plateau is known as the Central Highlands. The Vindhayas and its eastern extensions divide the Central Highlands from the Deccan Plateau in the southern side. In its west lies the rocky desert of Rajasthan, in the north-west it is bounded by the Aravalis, in the north lays the Gangetic Plain and in the east it is surrounded by part of UP and south Bihar. Most part of the Central Highlands consists of the Malwa Plateau and the Chhotanagpur Plateau. The eastward extensions are known as theBundelkhand and Baghelkhand.

3. Drainage

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Question 1:

Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

 (i) Which one of the following describes the drainage patterns resembling the branches of a tree?

(a)  Radial
(b)  Centrifugal
(c)  Dendritic
(d) Trellis

Answer: (c) Dendritic

 (ii) In which of the following states is the Wular lake located?

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Punjab
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: (d) Jammu and Kashmir

(iii) The river Narmada has its source at

(a) Satpura
(b) Amarkantak
(c) Brahmagiri
(d) Slopes of the Western Ghats

Answer: (b) Amarkantak

(iv) Which one of the following lakes is a salt water lake?

(a) Sambhar
(b) Wular
(c) Dal
(d) Gobind Sagar

Answer: (a) Sambhar

(v) Which one of the following is the longest river of the Peninsular India?

(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Krishna
(d) Mahanadi

Answer: (b) Godavari

(vi) Which one amongst the following rivers flows through a rift valley?

(a) Mahanadi
(b) Krishna
(c) Tungabhadra
(d) Tapi

Answer: (d) Tapi

 

Question 2:

Answer the following questions briefly,

(i)   What is meant by a water divide? Give an example.

(ii)  Which is the largest river basin in India?

(iii) Where do the rivers Indus and Ganga have their origin?

(iv) Name the two head-streams of the Ganga. Where do they meet to form Ganga?

(v)  Why does the Brahmaputra in its Tibetan part have less silt, despite a longer course?

(vi) Which two peninsular rivers flow through trough?

(vii) State some economic benefits of rivers and lakes.

Answer 2:

(i) Any upland or a mountain separating two adjoining drainage basins is known as water divide. Though the Indus, the Sutlej and the Brahmaputra rivers rise very close to each other near the Mansarovar Lake but because of the water divides they flow in different directions.

(ii) The Ganga basin is the largest river basin in India.

(iii) The Indus river has its origin in Tibet near the Mansarovar Lake while the Ganga River has its origin in Gangotri Glacier in Uttaranchal.

(iv) Alaknanda and Bhagirathi are the two headstreams of the Ganga. They meet at Devaprayag.

(v) The Brahmaputra river, which is known as Tsangpo in Tibet, receives very little volume of water in Tibet so; it has very little silt there. On the other hand, this river when enters India it passes through such a region which receives heavy rainfall. As such in India, in India it carries a large volume of water and larger amount of silt.

(vi) Narmada and Tapi are two peninsular rivers which flow through trough.

(vii) Lake can be used for generating hydroelectricity. A lake can be a good tourist attraction. Rivers have been the centre of human civilization since ancient times. Even today, many big cities are situated on the bank of a river. River water is used for irrigation, navigation, hydroelectricity, fisheries, etc.

 

Question 3:

Below are given names of a few lakes of India. Group those under two categories – natural and created by human beings.

(a) Wular                                                         (b) Dal

(c) Nainital                                                      (d) Bhimtal

(e) Govind Sagar                                             (f) Loktak

(g) Barapani                                                    (h) Chilika

(i) Sambhar                                                      (j) Rana Pratap Sagar

(k) Nizam Sagar                                              (l) Pulicat

(m) Nagarjuna Sagar                                       (n) Hirakund.

Answer 3:

(a) Wular: Natureal                                          (b) Dal: Natureal

(c) Nainital: Natureal                                       (d) Bhimtal: Natureal

(e) Govind Sagar: Human beings                  (f) Loktak: Natureal

(g) Barapani: Natureal                                     (h) Chilika: Natureal

(i) Sambhar : Natureal                                     (j) Rana Pratap Sagar: Human beings

(k) Nizam Sagar: Human beings                    (l) Pulicat : Natureal

(m) Nagarjuna Sagar: Human beings           (n) Hirakund: Human beings

 

Question 4:

Discuss the significant difference between the Himalayan and the Peninsular Rivers.

 Answer 4:

The following table differentiates between the Himalayan and the Peninsular Rivers:

The Himalayan RiversThe Peninsular Rivers

1. The Himalayan rivers rise in the snow-covered mountains are perennial type.

2. They flow in levelled Northern Plains and are highly useful for irrigation, cultivation and also navigation purpose.

3. The Himalayan Rivers bring with them fertile alluvium which they deposit in the Indo-Gangetic plains.

4. Canals have been dug to use the water of these rivers for irrigation.

5. Many important towns and centers of trade are situated on the banks of these rivers.

6. The porous soil of Northern Plain absorbs the water which is later on used as ground water by digging wells and tube wells.

1. The mountains in which the Peninsular Rivers rise not snow covered. Hence they dry up during summer.

2. The Peninsular Rivers flow on rocky surface and so, they are neither navigable nor useful for irrigation.

3. They do not bring with them any alluvium. Due to their swift current the depositional activity are negligible.

4. as the terrains are rocky and the banks of these rivers are high so, canals can not be dug. However, dams are built to store the flood water for irrigation with the help of small channels.

5. Very few important towns and centers of trade are situated on the banks of these rivers.

6. The underlying soil being rocky does not absorb any water. Hence, no wells can be dug.

 

Question 5:

Compare the east flowing and the west flowing rivers of the Peninsular plateau.

Answer 5:

The following table gives a comparison between the east flowing and the west flowing rivers of the Peninsular plateau:

East Flowing RiversWest Flowing Rivers

1. The Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, the Cauvery are the main east flowing rivers of Peninsular India.2. These rivers drain in the Bay of Bengal.

3. These rivers make deltas at their mouth.

4. These rivers have a developed, large tributary system.

 

5. These river flow not through very deep canals.

1. The Narmada and the Tapi are the main west flowing rivers of Peninsular India.2.  These rivers drain in the Arabian sea.

3. These rivers enter the sea through estuaries.

4. These rivers are devoid of a developed tributary system. Their tributaries are quite small in size.

5. These rivers flow in troughs.

 

Question 6:

Why are rivers important for the country’s economy?

Answer 6:

Rivers are highly important for the country’s economy. Following are some of the points which indicate the importance of rivers for the country’s economy:

  • The rivers contain natural fresh (sweet) water which is required for the survival of most of the animals including man.
  • They provide water for irrigation and cultivation.
  • They make soil rich and arable which can be easily brought under cultivation without much labour.
  • Used for navigation and transport thus, important for commercial activities.
  • Estuaries near the sea-shores, where the sweet water mixes freely with the salty water of the oceans, have proved one of the most biologically productive areas of the world.
  • The rivers are being harnessed for generating hydro-electric power.

Some lakes are also important tourist spots e.g. Dal Lake, Nainital etc.

4. Climate

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Question 1:

Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below.
(i) Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
(a) Silchar
(b) Cherrapunji
(c) Mawsynram
(d) Guwahati
Answer: (c) Mawsynram

(ii) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:

(a) Kaal Baisakhi
(b) Trade Winds
(c) Loo
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Loo

(iii)     Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western    part of India?

(a) Cyclonic depression
(b) Western disturbances
(c) Retreating monsoon
(d) Southwest monsoon
Answer: (b) Western disturbances

(iv) Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:
(a) Early May
(b) Early June
(c) Early July
(d) Early August
Answer: (b) Early June

(v) Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?

(a) Warm days and warm nights
(b) Warm days and cold nights
(c) Cool days and cold nights
(d) Cold days and warm nights
Answer: (c) Cool days and cold nights

 

Question 2:

Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What are the controls affecting the climate of India?

(ii) Why does India have a monsoon type of climate?

(iii) Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why?

(iv) Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar coast?

(v) What are Jet streams and how do they affect the climate of India?

(vi) Define monsoons. What do you understand by “break” in monsoon?

(vii) Why is the monsoon considered a unifying bond?

Answer 2:

(i) Latitude, Altitude and Pressure and Winds are the main factors which affect the climate of India.

(ii) India comes in the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ). This fact; in association with various other factors, like the El Nino, Jet Stream and Coriolois Force are the reasons for monsoon type of climate in India.

(iii) Northwestern part of India experiences the highest diurnal range of temperature. This happens because of the presence of the Thar Desert and also because this region does not have the moderating influence of the ocean.

(iv) Monsoon winds

(v) Fast flowing and narrow air currents are called jet streams. The streams flow at high altitudes (about 12,000 feet) in the troposphere. The westerly jet streams are responsible for western cyclonic disturbances in the north and north-western parts of India. The subtropical westerly jet stream moves north of the Himalayas with the apparent movement of the sun. The tropical jet stream (an easterly jet stream) blows over the Indian Peninsula; approximately over 14° north during the summer months.

(vi) The seasonal reversal in wind direction during a year is called monsoon. Monsoon tends to have ‘breaks’ in rainfall; which means that there are wet and dry spells in between. The monsoon rains take place only for a few days at a time and then come the rainless intervals.

(vii) Although there are wide variations in weather patterns across India, the monsoon brings some unifying influences on India. The Indian landscape, its flora and fauna, etc. are highly influenced by the monsoon. The entire agricultural calendar in India is governed by the monsoon. Most of the festivals in India are related to agricultural cycle. These festivals may be known by different names in different parts of the country, but their celebration is decided by the monsoon. It is also said that the river valleys which carry the rainwater also unite as a single river valley unit. Due to these reasons, monsoon is often a great unifying factor in India.

 

Question 3:

Why does the rainfall decrease from the east to the west in Northern India?

Answer 3:

The Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon winds moves towards northeast and return westwards covering the northern plains. While they move towards west, their moisture contains tends to reduce with subsequent rains. Hence the rainfall decreases from east to west in northern India.

 

Question 4:

Give reasons as to why.

(i) Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent?

(ii) The bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.

(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.

(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.

(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought-prone.

Answer 4:

(i) Seasonal reversal of wind direction over the Indian subcontinent takes place due to pressure differential. El Nino has major role to play in the seasonal reversal of wind direction over the Indian subcontinent.

(ii) The monsoon begins from the first week of June and advances quite rapidly to cover almost the whole country by mid-July. Hence, the bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over the months of a few months; mainly June to August.

(iii) The Tami Nadu coast receives winter rainfall because of movement of low-pressure conditions to the Bay of Bengal.

(iv) The Bay of Bengal is the centre of various pressure changes and hence there is always a chance of development of cyclone. Due to this, the delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.

(v) The parts fall in the rain shadow area of the Aravalli. Hence, they are drought prone.

 

Question 5:

Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples.

Answer 5:

Indian Peninsular shows wide variations in climatic conditions across various regions. For example; during winter season, the temperature goes into negative in the Himalayan region. In the northwestern India, temperatures can range between zero degree to 15°C during winter. During the same season, the temperature in Chennai remains a comfortable 25°C. The same variation can be seen in summer as well, while the temperature in Rajasthan can hover around 47°C, it is a comfortable 30°C in Chennai.

 

Question 6:

Discuss the mechanism of monsoons.

Answer 6:

The low-pressure condition over the northern plains intensifies by the beginning of June. It attracts the trade winds from the southern hemisphere. These south-east trade winds cross the equator and blow in a south-westerly direction to enter the Indian peninsula as the south-west monsoon. These winds bring abundant moisture to the subcontinent.

Question 7:

Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season.

Answer 7:

The temperature ranges between 10°-15°C in the northern plains. The weather is usually marked by clear sky, low temperatures and low humidity and feeble variable winds. The inflow of the cyclonic disturbances from the west and the northwest is a characteristic feature of the cold weather over the northern plains. These low-pressure systems originate over the Mediterranean Sea and Western Asia and move into India. They cause winter rains over the plains and snowfall in the mountains.

Question 8:

Give the characteristics and effects of the monsoon rainfall in India.

Answer 8:

Monsoon tends to have ‘breaks’ in rainfall; which means that there are wet and dry spells in between. The monsoon is famous for its uncertainties. It may cause heavy floods in one part of the country, and may be responsible for droughts in other part. Because of its uncertain behaviour, it sometimes disturbs the farming schedule in India. This affects millions of farmers all over the country.

5. Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

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Question 1:

Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:
(i) To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to?
(a) Tundra
(b) Himalayan
(c) Tidal
(d) Tropical Evergreen
Answer: (d) Tropical Evergreen

(ii) Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than
(a) 100 cm
(b) 70 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) less than 50 cm
Answer: (a) 100 cm

(iii) In which of the following state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located?
(a) Punjab
(b) Delhi
(c) Odisha
(d) West Bengal
Answer: (d) West Bengal

(iv) Which one of the following bio-reserves of India is not included in the world network of bio-reserve?

(a) Manas
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Nilgiri
(d) Nanda devi
Answer: (a) Manas

 

Question 2:

Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) Define an ecosystem.

(ii) What factors are responsible for the distribution of plants and animals in India?

(iii) What is a bio-reserve? Give two examples.

(iv) Name two animals having habitat in tropical and montane type of vegetation.

Answer 2:

(i) All the plants and animals in an area are interdependent on each other. The plants and animals; along with their physical environment make the ecosystem.

(ii) Relief (Land and soil) and Climate (Temperature, humidity, photoperiod and precipitation) are the factors which are responsible for the distribution of plants and animals in India.

(iii) A biosphere reserve is an area proposed by its residents, ratified by a national committee, and designated by UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) program, which demonstrates innovative approaches to living and working in harmony with nature.

(iv) Tropical (Elephant, deer) and Montane (yak, snow leopard)

 

Question 3:

Distinguish between

(i)  Flora and Fauna

(ii) Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous forests

Answer 3:

(i) Plant species comprise the flora, while animal species comprise the fauna.

(ii) Trees of evergreen forests do not shed their leaves at a fixed time in a year, while trees of deciduous forest shed their leaves at a fixed time in a year.

 

Question 4:

Name different types of Vegetation found in India and describe the vegetation of high altitudes.

Answer 4:

There are five major types of vegetation in India: Tropical Rainforests, Tropical Deciduous Forests, Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs, Montane Forests and Mangrove Forests.

Montane Forest: The forests in the mountainous areas are called montane forest. These forests are mainly found along the southern slopes of the Himalayas and at high altitudes in southern and north-eastern India. Kashmir stag, spotted deer, wild sheep, jack rabbit, Tibetan antelope, yak, snow leopard, squirrels, Shaggy horn wild ibex, bear, rare red panda, sheep and goats are the common animals in these forests.

 

Question 5:

Quite a few species of plants and animals are endangered in India. Why?

Answer 5:

Large scale deforestation has reduced the natural habitat of many plants and animals. Due to this, many species of plants and animals are endangered in India.

 

Question 6:

Why has India a rich heritage of flora and fauna?

Answer 6:

India has a variety of climatic conditions; like tropical, subtropical, desert and mountainous. Due to this, there are enough habitats for a large variety of flora and fauna. Due to this, India has a rich heritage of flora and fauna.

6. Population

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Question 1:

Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.
(i) Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in

(a) The area of departure
(b) Both the area of departure and arrival
(c) The area of arrival
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Both the area of departure and arrival

(ii) A large proportion of children in a population is a result of
(a) High birth rates
(b) High death rates
(c) High life expectancies
(d) More married couples
Answer: (a) High birth rates

(iii) The magnitude of population growth refers to
(a) The total population of an area
(b) The number of persons added each year
(c) The rate at which the population increases
(d) The number of females per thousand males
Answer: (b) The number of persons added each year

(iv) According to the Census 2001, a “literate” person is one who
(a) Can read and write his/her name
(b) Can read and write any language

(c) Is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding

(d) Knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic)
Answer:  (a) Can read and write his/her name

 

Question 2:

Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?

(ii) Discuss the major components of population growth.

(iii) Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.

(iv) How is migration a determinant factor of population change?

Answer 2:

(i) The family planning programme helped in increasing the awareness about the benefits of smaller family size. This helped in reducing the rate of population growth in India since 1981.

(ii) Birth rate, death rate and migration are the major components of population growth. A higher birth rate; coupled with a lower death rate leads to population growth. International migration can lead to population growth of more number of people are coming from other countries than the number of people going outside the country.

(iii) Age Structure: Relative percentage of various age groups in the population is called age structure of the population. Age group is generally divided into children (upto 14 years), working age (15 – 59 years) and aged (60 years and above).

Death Rate: The number of deaths per 1000 persons is called death rate.
Birth Rate : The number of live births per 1000 persons is called birth rate.

(iv) Migration within the country is called internal migration, while that between two countries is called international migration. Internal migration has no change on population size but it changes the population composition of a particular area. International migration can lead to a growth or degrowth in population; depending on the degree of immigration and emigration.

 

Question 3:

Distinguish between population growth and population change.

Answer 3:

Population growth is about increase or decrease in the population. Population change is about changes in population composition; like age structure, sex ratio, literacy rate, occupational structure, etc.

 

Question 4:

What is the relation between occupational structure and development?

Answer 4:

Occupational structure greatly affects the development of a country. A large portion of the Indian population is still dependent on the primary sector for employment; which is one of the reasons for lack of development in India. Examples of developed nations suggest that when a greater portion of population engages in secondary and tertiary activities, it leads to proper development.

 

Question 5:

What are the advantages of having a healthy population?

Answer 5:

A healthy population helps in building a productive workforce for the country. Even the non-productive age group needs to be healthy to reduce the burden of healthcare. Healthy children would grow into healthy adults and would be able to contribute better in the economy. Healthy elders would mean less strain on the resources.

 

Question 6:

What are the significant features of the National Population Policy 2000?

Answer 6:

NPP 200 has put special emphasis on the adolescent population. Focus is given to special nutritional needs of the adolescents. Awareness programmes are conducted to increase awareness about STDs, unwanted pregnancies, child marriage, risks of unprotected sex, etc.


Political Science (Democratic Politics – I)

1. Democracy in Contemporary World 

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2. What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

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Question 1:

Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would you classify each of these countries. Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.

  • (a) Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not have a right to vote

Answer: Undemocratic

  • (b) Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty years

Answer:  Not sure

  • (c) Country C: Ruling party has lost in the last three elections

Answer: Democratic

  • (d) Country D: There is no independent election commission

Answer: Undemocratic

 

Question 2:

Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would you classify each of these countries. Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.

  • (a) Country P: The parliament cannot pass a law about the army without the consent of the Chief of Army

Answer: Undemocratic

  • (b) Country Q: The parliament cannot pass a law reducing the powers of the judiciary

Answer: Undemocratic

  • (c) Country R: The country’s leaders cannot sign any treaty with another country without taking permission from its neighbouring country.

Answer: Not sure

  • (d) Country S: All the major economic decisions about the country are taken by officials of the central bank which the ministers cannot change.

Answer: Not sure

 

Question 3:

Which of these is not a good argument in favour of democracy? Why?

  • (a)  People feel free and equal in a democracy
  • (b)  Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others
  • (c)  Democratic government is more accountable to the people
  • (d)  Democracies are more prosperous than others

Answer 3: Economic prosperity depends on many factors; like availability of natural resources, quality of human resources, finance, geopolitical scenario, etc. A particular form of government is some role to play, so it cannot be seen as a good argument in favour of democracy.

 

Question 4:

Each of these statements contains a democratic and an undemocratic element. Write out the two separately for each statement.

  • (a) A minister said that some laws have to be passed by the parliament in order to conform to the regulations decided by the World Trade Organisation.

Answer: The fact that the laws need to be passed by the parliament is democratic, while conformation to the WTO regulations is undemocratic.

  • (b) The Election Commission ordered re-polling in a constituency where large scale rigging was reported.

Answer: Re-polling is democratic, while rigging is undemocratic.

  • (c) Women’s representation in the parliament has never reached 10 per cent. This led women’s organisations to demand one-third seats for women.

Answer: Poor level of women’s representation is undemocratic, while the demand for one-third seats is democratic.

 

Question 5:

Which of these is not a valid reason for arguing that there is a lesser possibility of famine in a democratic country?

  • (a) Opposition parties can draw attention to hunger and starvation.
  • (b) Free press can report suffering from famine in different parts of the country.
  • (c) Government fears its defeat in the next elections.
  • (d) People are free to believe in and practise any religion.

Answer 5:

(d) People are free to believe in and practise any religion.

 

Question 6:

There are 40 villages in a district where the government has made no provision for drinking water. These villagers met and considered many methods of forcing the government to respond to their need. Which of these is not a democratic method?

  • (a)  Filing a case in the courts claiming that water is part of right to life.
  • (b)  Boycotting the next elections to give a message to all parties.
  • (c)  Organising public meetings against government’s policies.
  • (d)  Paying money to government officials to get water.

Answer 6:

(d) Paying money to government officials to get water.

 

Question 7:

Write a response to the following arguments against democracy:

  • (a) Army is the most disciplined and corruption-free organisation in the country. Therefore army should rule the country.

Answer: Army officers are not elected by people and hence an army rule would be undemocratic.

  •  (b) Rule of the majority means the rule of ignorant people. What we need is the rule of the wise, even if they are in small numbers.

Answer: Democracy is based on the idea of universal adult franchise. Restricting the rulers from a small section comprising of ‘wise’ people would defeat the purpose of representational democracy.

  •  (c) If we want religious leaders to guide us in spiritual matters, why not invite them to guide us in politics as well. The country should be ruled by religious leaders.

Answer: Religious leaders are not elected by people and hence a country should not be ruled by religious leaders.

 

Question 8:

Are the following statements in keeping with democracy as a value? Why?

  • (a) Father to daughter: I don’t want to hear your opinion about your marriage. In our family children marry where the parents tell them to.

Answer: In this case, the daughter does not have the freedom of choice, hence this is undemocratic.

  • (b) Teacher to student: Don’t disturb my concentration by asking me questions in the classroom.

Answer: The teacher may be involved in thinking about an important topic and hence is asking the student not to disturb her. It cannot be said with surety whether the teacher’s request is democratic or not.

  • (c) Employee to the officer: Our working hours must be reduced according to the law.

Answer: The employee is asking for a fundamental right and hence it is democratic.

 

Question 9:

Consider the following facts about a country and decide if you would call it a democracy. Give reasons to support your decision.

  • (a) All the citizens of the country have right to vote. Elections are held regularly.

Answer: Regular elections and universal adult franchise are two important features of a democracy and hence this is a democratic situation.

  • (b) The country took loan from international agencies. One of the conditions for giving loan was that the government would reduce its expenses on education and health.

Answer: An international agency should not interfere in the internal matters of a country. Hence this is undemocratic.

  • (c) People speak more than seven languages but education is available only in one language, the language spoken by 52 percent people of that country.

Answer: This is an example where majority view is being imposed and hence is undemocratic.

  • (d) Several organisations have given a call for peaceful demonstrations and nationwide strikes in the country to oppose these policies. Government has arrested these leaders.

Answer: Democratic government should provide the right to protest. The government is denying such right to its citizens and hence is undemocratic.

  • (e) The government owns the radio and television in the country. All the newspapers have to get permission from the government to publish any news about government’s policies and protests.

Answer: Freedom of media is very important for a democracy. This is an undemocratic example.

3. Constitutional Design

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Question 1:

Here are some false statements. Identify the mistake in each case and rewrite these correctly based on what you have read in this chapter.

  • (a) Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about whether the country should be democratic or not after independence.

Answer: This is a true statement.

  • (b) Members of the Constituent Assembly of India held the same views on all provisions of the Constitution.

Answer: Members of the Constituent Assembly of India had different opinions on various provisions of the constitution.

  •  (c) A country that has a constitution must be a democracy.

Answer: This cannot be said with surety; in the context of information given in this chapter.

  •  (d) Constitution cannot be amended because it is the supreme law of a country.

Answer: Constitution can be amended to keep up with the changes in aspirations of the society.

 

Question 2:

Which of these was the most salient underlying conflict in the making of a democratic constitution in South Africa?

  • (a) Between South Africa and its neighbours
  • (b) Between men and women
  • (c) Between the white majority and the black minority
  • (d) Between the coloured minority and the black majority

Answer:

  • (d) Between the coloured minority and the black majority

 

Question 3:

Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have?

  • (a) Powers of the head of the state
  • (b) Name of the head of the state
  • (c) Powers of the legislature
  • (d) Name of the country

Answer:

  • (b) Name of the head of the state

 

Question 4:

Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of the Constitution:

Column IColumn II
(a) Motilal Nehru 1. President of the Constituent Assembly
(b) B R Ambedkar2. Member of the Constituent Assembly
(c) Rajendra Prasad3. Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(d) Sarojini Naidu4. Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928

 Answer: (a) – 4,                   (b) – 3,             (c) – 1,              (d) – 2

 

Question 5:

Read again the extracts from Nehru’s speech ‘Tryst with Destiny’ and answer the following:

  • (a) Why did Nehru use the expression “not wholly or in full measure” in the first sentence?

Answer: The task of building a nation is a gargantuan task which cannot be fulfilled in one’s lifetime. Hence Nehru had used the expression, “not wholly or in full measure, but substantially”.

  • (b) What pledge did he want the makers of the Indian Constitution to take?

Answer: He wanted them to take the pledge of building a nation in which there would not be a single person with tears in his eyes. He wanted them to understand the huge responsibility which destiny had thrust upon them.

  • (c) “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye”. Who was he referring to?

Answer: He was referring to Mahatma Gandhi.

 

Question 6:

Here are some of the guiding values of the Constitution and their meaning. Rewrite them by matching them correctly.

Column IColumn II
(a) Sovereign1. Government will not favour any religion
(b) Republic2. People have the supreme right to make decisions.
(c) Fraternity3. Head of the state is an elected person.
(d) Secular4. People should live like brothers and sisters.

 Answer 6: (a) – 2,                (b) – 3,             (c) – 4,              (d) – 1

 

Question 7:

A friend from Nepal has written you a letter describing the political exercises situation there. Many political parties are opposing the rule of the king. Some of them say that the existing constitution given by the monarch can be amended to allow more powers to elected representatives. Others are demanding a new Constituent Assembly to write a republican constitution. Reply to your friend giving your opinions on the subject.

Answer 7:

Both the options are plausible. If the existing constitution is proper then it can be amended to include more powers to elected representatives. If the existing constitution is full of loopholes, then a new constitution should be drafted. For this, a Constituent Assembly should be formed by including the elected representatives and they should collectively decide about a particular option.

 

Question 8:

Here are different opinions about what made India a democracy. How much importance would you give to each of these factors?

  •  (a) Democracy in India is a gift of the British rulers. We received training to work with representative legislative institutions under the British rule.

Answer: The importance of this fact cannot be ignored. We should acknowledge that we learnt many good things from the British rulers and democracy was one of them.

  • (b) Freedom Struggle challenged the colonial exploitation and denial of different freedoms to Indians. Free India could not be anything but democratic.

Answer: Freedom struggle was important in spreading the idea of nationalism in India and inculcating the practice of making decisions by consensus.

  • (c) We were lucky to have leaders who had democratic convictions. The denial of democracy in several other newly independent countries shows the important role of these leaders.

Answer: We were indeed lucky that we did not have leaders who were autocratic. India’s freedom struggle is the only example of a bloodless freedom struggle in the contemporary history. This could be possible because our nationalist leaders had the maturity to listen to others’ views.

 

Question 9:

Read the following extract from a conduct book for ‘married women’, published in 1912. ‘God has made the female species delicate and fragile both physically and emotionally, pitiably incapable of self-defence. They are destined thus by God to remain in male protection – of father, husband and son – all their lives. Women should, therefore, not despair, but feel obliged that they can dedicate themselves to the service of men’. Do you think the values expressed in this para reflected the values underlying our constitution? Or does this go against the constitutional values?

Answer 9:

The constitution treats every citizen equally irrespective of gender distinction. Hence this paragraph does not reflect the underlying value in our constitution.

 

 Question 10:

Read the following statements about a constitution. Give reasons why each of these is true or not true.

  • (a) The authority of the rules of the constitution is the same as that of any other law.
  • (b) Constitution lays down how different organs of the government will be formed.
  • (c) Rights of citizens and limits on the power of the government are laid down in the constitution.
  • (d) A constitution is about institutions, not about values.

Answer 10:

  • (a) This is not a true statement since the authority of the rules of the Constitution is much more than that of any other law.
  • (b) No, it is not correct because our Constitution lays down how different organs of the Government will be formed.
  • (c) This is a correct statement since in our Constitution rights of citizens and limits on the power of the government have been clearly laid down.
  • (d) A constitution is about institutions through which different values are being inculcated.

4. Electoral Politics

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Question 1:

Which of the following sentiments about the reason for conducting elections are false?

  • 1. Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government.
  • 2. People select the representative of their choice in an election.
  • 3. Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
  • 4. People can indicate which policies they prefer.

Answer 1: (c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary

 

Question 2:

Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?

  1. India has the largest numbers of voters in the world.
  2. India’s election commission is very powerful.
  3. In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
  4. In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.

Answer 2: (a) India has the largest numbers of voters in the world.

 

Question 3:

Answer 3: (a) iv                  (b) i                             (c) ii                             (d) iii.

  

Question 4:

List all the different election related activities mentioned in the chapter and arrange them in a time sequence, beginning with the first activity and ending with the last. Some of these activities are given below:

Releasing election manifestos, Counting of votes, Making of voters’ list, Election campaign, Declaration of election results, Casting of votes, Ordering of re-poll, Announcing election schedule, Filing nomination.

Answer 4:

Different election related activities:

  1. Making of voters’ list
  2. Announcing election schedule
  3. Filing nomination
  4. Election campaign
  5. Releasing election manifestos
  6. Casting of votes
  7. Counting of votes
  8. Declaration of election results
  9. Ordering of re-poll

 

Question 5:

Surekha is an officer-in-charge of ensuring free and fair elections in an assembly constituency in a state. Describe what she should focus on for each of the following stages of election:

  1. Election campaign
  2. Polling day
  3. Counting day.

Answer 5:

1. Election campaign– During election campaign, the different political parties hold their meetings, take out their rallies, distribute their manifestos, display their posters and do door-to-door canvassing. Surekha as an officer-in-charge should see that the meetings are held within the stipulated time, there are no clashes during the rallies, no party is violating code of conducts for elections such as, wall-postering, character assassination of the opponents etc.

2. Polling day – On the polling day, the voters go to their nearest polling booths to cast their votes. On this day she has to see that:

  • The polling is done in a peaceful atmosphere.
  • No bogus voter casts the vote.
  • There is police arrangement in every booth.
  • No unsocial element enters any booth.
  • There is no booth capturing or rigging.
  • The ballot boxes or electronic machines reach counting center safely.

3. Counting day – On the counting day the agents of almost every candidate take their seats inside the counting center. Surekha as an officer-in-charge has to take care of the following:

  • There is a proper seating arrangement for the agents of different candidates.
  • Proper police arrangement is there to ward off any undue incident.
  • Counting of votes is carried peacefully without any outside interference and to the full satisfaction of all the candidates.
  • Rejoicing should be peaceful and un-provocative.

 

Question 6:

The table below gives the proportion of different communities among the candidates who won elections to the US Congress. Compare these to the proportion of these communities in the population of the US. Based on this would you suggest a system of reservations in the US Congress? If yes, why and for which communities? If no, why not?

Answer 6:

  1. The Blacks have lesser number of seats i.e. 8, in the House of Representatives as compared to their population (13%) so a system of reservation should be there for them in US Congress.
  2. In case of Hispanics, the need of reservation is somewhat more as the number of their members in the House of Representatives is far less (5) as compared to their population (13%).
  3. There is no need of reservation for the Whites as they have already more seats (86) in the House of Representatives as compared to their population (70%).

 

Question 7:

Can we draw the following conclusions from the information given in this chapter? Give two facts to support your position for each of these.

  • (a) Election Commission of India does not have enough powers to conduct free and fair elections in the country.
  • (b) There is a high level of popular participation in the elections in our country.
  • (c) It is very easy for the party in power to win an election.
  • (d) Many reforms are needed to make our elections completely free and fair.

Answer 7:

  • (a) It is wrong to say that election commission of India does not have enough powers to conduct free and fair elections. Because Election Commission of India have enough powers to conduct free and fair elections in the country. The Election Commission of India is an independent and powerful body.
  • Firstly, the Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President or Government of India. He can not be removed. Secondly, the can order Election Commissioner can order the Government to follow certain guidelines. Thirdly, if he feels that the elections have not been conducted fairly, he can order repoll in certain booths or even in the entire constituency. Fourthly, during election duty, other Government servants work under the control of Election Commissioner.
  • (b) It is a fact that there is a high level of popular participation in the elections in our country. During the last 50 years or so, the turn out of voters in the North America and Europe has declined while in India it has either remained stable or increased. It has been found that in our country the poor, the illiterate and the unprivileged people vote in larger proportion as compared to the rich and the privileged classes.
  • (c) It is quite a wrong notion that party in power can win an election quite easily in India. If such a thing would have been true, the Congress stalwart like Indira Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India, would not have been defeated by Raj Narain, an ordinary politician. There are many occasions when the ruling party has lost elections in India.
  • (d) There is no system as such where can not be a reform and improvement. Reforms are required to prevent use of money, muscle power, and unfair practices from bearing fruit.

 

Question 8:

Chinappa was convicted for torturing his wife for dowry. Satbir was held guilty of practicing untouchability. The court did not allow either of them to contest elections. Does this decision go against the principles of democratic elections?

Answer 8:

In both the cases, Chinappa and Satbir, the court has done the right thing by not allowing either of them to contest elections. This decision does not go against the principle of democratic elections. The convicted and the guilty persons should not be allowed to contest elections otherwise they would criminalize the whole election process and that jeopardize the high principles of democracy.

  

Question 9:

Here are some reports of electoral malpractices from different parts of the world. Is there anything that these countries can learn from India to improve their elections? What would you suggest in each case?

  • (a) During an election in Nigeria, the officer-in-charge of counting votes deliberately increased the votes of one candidate and declared him elected. The court later found out that more than 5 lakh votes cast for one candidate were counted in favour of another.
  • (b) Just before the elections in Fiji, a pamphlet was distributed warning voters that a vote for former Prime Minister, Mahendra Chaudhry will lead to bloodshed. This was a threat to voters of Indian origin.
  • (c) In the US, each state has its own method of voting, its own procedure of counting and it own authority for conducting elections. Authorities in the state of Florida took many controversial decisions that favoured Mr. Bush in the Presidential elections in 2000. But no one could change those decisions.

 Answer 9:

  • (a) The officer-in-charge during elections (counting) should have been impartial and should have ordered repoll. For voting there should be electronic machines so that no fraud could be done in counting. In the event of non-availability of electronic machines, the votes should be counted in presence of representatives of different candidates or political parties. Nigeria can learn this lesson from India.
  • (b) Such a thing is quite wrong against the spirit of a free and fair election. Firstly, the voters should never be threatened to cast their vote against their conscience. Secondly, if at all, any pamphlet was to be distributed then it should have been done at least 48 hours before the date of election a done in India. So Fiji can learn these lessons from India – not to intimidate the voters and even if such a thing happens, then the election can be postponed or cancelled.
  • (c) In India, one and uniform rules are followed in all states as far as the method of voting, procedure of counting are concerned. Different rules, different authorities, and different procedures of counting lead to the ambiguity and vagueness and take away the sense of justice, which is one of the main principles of democracy. US can take some good points and lessons from India how to follow same rules, procedures etc. in all states and across the country.

 

Question 10:

Here are some reports of malpractices in Indian elections. Identify what the problem in each case is. What should be done to correct the situation?

  • (a) Following the announcement of elections the minister promised to provide financial aid to reopen the closed sugar mill.
  • (b) Opposition parties alleged that their statements and campaign was not given the due attention in Doordarshan and All India Radio.
  • (c) An inquiry by the Election Commission showed that electoral rolls of a state contain names of 20 lakh fake voters.
  • (d) The hoodlums of a political party were moving with guns, physically preventing supporters of other political parties to meet the voters and attacking meetings of other parties.

Answer 10:

  • (a) By doing so, the minister has erred on two counts. Firstly, he should not have made this promise when the announcement of elections has already been made. Secondly, by promising financial aid he is trying to bribe the voters by using financial tricks. He is trying to take advantage of his party being in power. This mill should not be opened and it should be left to the winning party to decide after the elections.
  • (b) In order to remove this allegation of the opposition parties, the best solution is that Doordarshan and All India Radio must be made autonomous bodies so that government could not influence them in its favour. Equal time should be given to all parties and candidates to present their views in front of the voters.
  • (c) The Election Commission has the power to remaking of the electoral rolls and to see that the names of 20 lakh fake voters are removed from the new electoral rolls.
  • (d) The Election Commission has the power to check this malpractice of moving with guns, physically preventing supporters of other political parties to meet the voters and attacking meetings of other parties. It can withdraw the recognition of any party or disqualify such a candidate from contesting elections if its supporters are found to be moving with weapons.

 

Question 11:

Ramesh was not in class when this chapter was being taught. He came the next day and reported what he had heard from his father. Can you tell Ramesh what is wrong with these statements?

  • (a) Women always vote the way men tell them. So what is the point of giving them the right to vote?
  • (b) Party politics creates tension in society. Elections should be decided by consensus not by competition.
  • (c) Only graduates should be allowed to stand as candidates for elections.

Answer 11:

  • (a) Women always vote the way men tell them to do is a wrong statement. It would be totally undemocratic if we debar women who are about 50 per cent of the population, of their right to vote on the basis of gender distinction. It will also take away the quality of true representation of a democracy. Often we see husband contesting election from one party while his wife contesting from another party.
  • (b) A healthy competition provides option to the people to choose the better. A consensus can make the people deaf and dumb which against the spirit of democracy. Electoral competition is necessary because it provides incentives to political parties and leaders and forces them to serve the people better.
  • (c) Educational qualifications are not necessary to all kinds of jobs. It is also a wrong notion that only graduates should be allowed to contest elections. A majority of people who fought for the independence of the country were almost illiterate. They have equal right with those of the educated to enjoy the fruit of the hard won independence. It is also agreed that if a graduate degree is made an eligibility criteria, then more than 90% of the voters would become ineligible for contesting an election. Would that be a democracy, certainly not. India follows the rule – ‘One person one vote’. This is in true spirit of democracy.

5. Working of Institutions

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Question 1:

If you are elected as the President of India which of the following decision can you take on your own?

  • (a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
  • (b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in Lok Sabha.
  • (c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
  • (d) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers.

Answer 1:

  •  (c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

 

Question 2:

Who among the following is a part of the political executive?

  • (a) District Collector
  • (b) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs
  • (c) Home Minister
  • (d) Director General of Police

Answer 2:

  •  (c) Home Minister

 

Question 3:

Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?

  • (a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court
  • (b) Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes against the spirit of the Constitution
  • (c) Judiciary is independent of the Executive
  • (d) Any citizen can approach the courts if her rights are violated

Answer 3:

  • (a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court

 

Question 4:

Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?

  • (a) The Supreme Court
  • (b) The President”
  • (c) The Prime Minister
  • (d) The Parliament

Answer 4:

  •  (d) The Parliament

 

Question 5:

Match the ministry with the news that the ministry may have released: exercises

Column IColumn II
(a) A new policy is being made to increase the jute exports from the country.1. Ministry of Defence
(b) Telephone services will be made more accessible to rural areas.2. Ministry of Agriculture, Food and Public Distribution
(c) The price of rice and  wheat sold under the Public Distribution System will go down3. Ministry of Health
(d) A pulse polio campaign will be launched.4. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
 (e) The allowances of the soldiers posted on high altitudes will be increased.5. Ministry of Communications and Information Technology

Answer 5:

(a) – 4,         (b) – 5,         (c) – 2,         (d) – 3,         (e) – 1

 

Question 6:

Of all the institutions that we have studied in this chapter, name the one that exercises the powers on each of the following matters.

  • (a) Decision on allocation of money for developing infrastructure like roads, irrigation etc. and different welfare activities for the citizens
  • (b) Considers the recommendation of a Committee on a law to regulate the stock exchange
  • (c) Decides on a legal dispute between two state governments
  • (d) Implements the decision to provide relief for the victims of an earthquake.

Answer 6:

  • (a) Cabinet
  • (b) Parliament
  • (c) Supreme Court
  • (d) Permanent Executive

 

Question 7:

Why is the Prime Minister in India not directly elected by the people? Choose the most appropriate answer and give reasons for your choice.

  • (a) In a Parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.
  • (b) Lok Sabha can remove the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers even before the expiry of their term.
  • (c) Since the Prime Minister is appointed by the President there is no need for it.
  • (d) Direct election of the Prime Minister will involve lot of expenditure on election.

Answer 7:

  • (a) In a Parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.

 

Question 8:

Three friends went to watch a film that showed the hero becoming Chief Minister for a day and making big changes in the state. Imran said this is what the country needs. Rizwan said this kind of a personal rule without institutions is dangerous. Shankar said all this is a fantasy. No minister can do anything in one day. What would be your reaction to such a film?

Answer 8:

While it may look quite appealing in a movie; the real life is strikingly different. Governance in a democracy is all about taking everyone along with you. Moreover, in a large and diverse country like India, it is not possible to take decision on the whims of an individual. Implementation of a decision needs to coordination among various organs of the government and a minister is just a part of that system.

 

Question 9:

A teacher was making preparations for a mock parliament. She called two students to act as leaders of two political parties. She gave them an option: Each one could choose to have a majority either in the mock Lok Sabha or in the mock Rajya Sabha. If this choice was given to you, which one would you choose and why?

Answer 9:

I would choose to have a majority in the Lok Sabha. The leader of the Lok Sabha is directly answerable to the public and hence it can be quite challenging for him.

 

Question 10:

After reading the example of the reservation order, three students had different reactions about the role of the judiciary. Which view, according to you, is a correct reading of the role of judiciary?

  • (a) Srinivas argues that since the Supreme Court agreed with the government, it is not independent.
  • (b) Anjaiah says that judiciary is independent because it could have given a verdict against the government order. The Supreme Court did direct the government to modify it.
  • (c) Vijaya thinks that the judiciary is neither independent nor conformist, but acts as a mediator between opposing parties. The court struck a good balance between those who supported and those who opposed the order.

Answer 10:

  • (c) Judiciary is independent because it could have given a verdict against the government order. The Supreme Court did direct the government to modify it.

6. Democratic Rights

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Question 1:

Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?

  • (a) Workers from Bihar go to the Punjab to work on the farms
  • (b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
  • (c) Men and women government employees get the same salary
  • (d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children

Answer 1:

  •  (d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children

 

 Question 2:

Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?

  • (a) Freedom to criticise the government
  • (b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
  • (c) Freedom to start a movement to change the government
  • (d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution

Answer 2:

  •  (b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution

 

 Question 3:

Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution?

  • (a) Right to work
  • (b) Right to adequate livelihood
  • (c) Right to protect one’s culture
  • (d) Right to privacy

Answer 3:

  • (c) Right to protect one’s culture

 

Question 4:

Name the Fundamental Right under which each of the following rights falls:

  • (a) Freedom to propagate one’s religion
  • (b) Right to life
  • (c) Abolition of untouchability
  • (d) Ban on bonded labour

Answer 4:

  • (a) Right to freedom of religion
  • (b) Right to freedom
  • (c) Right to equality
  • (d) Right to freedom

 

Question 5:

Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid? Give reasons for your preference.

  • (a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.
  • (b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy.
  • (c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy.

Answer 5:

  • (a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens

 

Question 6:

Are these restrictions on the right to freedom justified? Give reasons for your answer.

  • (a) Indian citizens need permission to visit some border areas of the country for reasons of security.
  • (b) Outsiders are not allowed to buy property in some areas to protect the interest of the local population.
  • (c) The government bans the publication of a book that can go against the ruling party in the next elections.

Answer 6:

  • (a) Country’s security is more important than the right to freedom of a citizen, hence this restriction is justified.
  • (b) Some areas may be culturally or ecologically vulnerable and hence outsiders are not allowed to buy property in such areas. This restriction is also justified.
  • (c) This restriction is not justified because we have the freedom of expression.

  

Question 7:

Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA course. The clerk refused to take his application and said “You, the son of a sweeper, wish to be a manager! Has anyone done this job in your community? Go to the municipality office and apply for a sweeper’s position”. Which of Manoj’s fundamental rights are being violated in this instance? Spell these out in a letter from Manoj to the district collector.

Answer 7:

The following rights are being violated.

  • Right to Equality: Everyone is equal in the eyes of the law. No one can be denied admissions on grounds of birth. The person is practicing “untouchability” in an indirect way, and this is an offence in the eyes of law. His right to opportunity is also being violated.
  • Right to Freedom: Manoj has a right to apply for any job anywhere as long as he is citizen of country.

These two points should be pointed out in your letter to the District Collector.

 

 Question 8:

When Madhurima went to the property registration office, the exercises Registrar told her, “You can’t write your name as Madhurima Banerjee d/o A. K. Banerjee. You are married, so you must give your husband’s name. Your husband’s surname is Rao. So your name should be changed to Madhurima Rao.” She did not agree. She said “If my husband’s name has not changed after marriage, why should mine?” In your opinion who is right in this dispute? And why?

Answer 8:

There is no law which states that a woman can own property in her married name only. The constitution gives equal right to both men and women. So if Madhurima wants to give her maiden name, though married, she has the right to do so. The Registrar is being traditional.

 

Question 9:

Thousands of tribals and other forest dwellers gathered at Piparia in Hoshangabad district in Madhya Pradesh to protest against their proposed displacement from the Satpura National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary and Panchmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary. They argue that such a displacement is an attack on their livelihood and beliefs. Government claims that their displacement is essential for the development of the area and for protection of wildlife. Write a petition on behalf of the forest dwellers to the NHRC, a response from the government and a report of the NHRC on this matter.

Answer 9:

Letter from Tribals to NHRC 

  • Government’s proposal is a violation of human rights.
  • It is taking away their right to live, right to follow their beliefs.
  • For centuries the forests have been their means of livelihood.
  • They have practised their rituals here.
  • No alternative has been suggested to them.
  • Nothing has happened to the wildlife, so why this sudden interest?
  • Displacement would cause untold misery to them, their families, children and their future.

Response from the Government 

  • The government had given a warning to the people two years ago.
  • There has been an alarming rise in poaching, cutting of trees and killing of wildlife.
  • Environmental pollution has also increased.
  • It is the government’s duty to protect the endangered species.
  • The government has offered compensation and promised rehabilitation in alternative places.
  • Offered jobs to the men.

NHRC’s Report 

  • Both sides have a point.
  • The Tribals have tradition, practice and decades of residence behind them. It is their world and life.
  • Sudden uprooting will leave them emotionally disturbed, turn them into vagabonds and force them into jobs or occupations which they have never followed.
  • The Government is right in its concern for wildlife. It is its duty to save certain species from becoming extinct. Poachers are having a field day, and every day the environment is threatened.

Suggestions: Transfer should be slow, not sudden. First, shelter and occupation should be provided to all the people. Education should be the primary concern. Only through education can the younger generation take to the new environment and occupation. Not one family should be rendered homeless and without means of occupation.

 

Question 10:

Draw a web interconnecting different rights discussed in this chapter. For example right to freedom of movement is connected to the freedom of occupation. One reason for this is that freedom of movement enables a person to go to place of work within one’s village or city or to another village, city or state. Similarly this right can be used for pilgrimage, connected with freedom to follow one’s religion. Draw a circle for each right and mark arrows that show connection between or among different rights. For each arrow, give an example that shows the linkage.

Answer 10:

It is student’s activity, so students are advised to do yourself.


Economics

Chapter 1       Chapter 2       Chapter 3       Chapter 4


 

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